The Law of Christ vs the Law of God

1 Corinthians 9:20-21 To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews. To those under the law I became as one under the law (though not being myself under the law) that I might win those under the law. To those outside the law I became as one outside the law not being outside the law of God but under the law of Christ. | ESV

The mainstream denominational System uses these verses to claim that believers in Jesus are under the “Law of Christ”, which they claim is a different Law than the Law of Moses. They “claim” this new Law of Christ is the Law for Christians, so they are no longer required to observe the Law of Moses.

Before going any further, please read the study, ‘Subject to the Power of the Law’ at this link , if you haven’t already, to truly understand the original Koine Greek word definitions of verse 20. Otherwise, you will not fully comprehend what Paul means by “under the law”.

Also, like some other verses in “English” Bibles, verse 20 has a portion that is not found in a number of original Greek texts; the parenthetical phrase, “(though not being myself under the law)” is not in the original Greek manuscripts of the Textus Receptus, Majority Text or the Greek Orthodox Text.

However, the fact that the words “(though not being myself under the law)” are not in half the Greek manuscripts is immaterial. Whether or not Paul actually wrote those words is irrelevant. The meaning of “under the law” has been completely misinterpreted and misunderstood by the mainstream Christian System. That denominational mis-understanding is not the topic of this particular study. If you read ‘Subject to the Power of the Law’ then you will understand what that phrase means ‘in Greek’ and it will become a non-issue, whether Paul wrote it or not.

I don’t believe Paul wrote that parenthetical phrase, because if he had written it in the original letter that he wrote with his own hand it would be in “all” of the original Greek manuscripts, not just half of them. It is my considered opinion that you can ignore that parenthetical phrase in verse 20 that says, ‘(though not being myself under the law)’.


These verses in 1 Corinthians 9, when read with the preconceived denominational belief that the Law of God given through Moses is abolished and has no authority anymore, has led to further error of interpretation of the Word of God. If you finish this study, you’ll see for yourself that this is so.

The verses above have been taken out of context and twisted, as well as having been translated into English incorrectly because of the improper understanding of the original Koine Greek (or worse, willful ignorance).

The issues that are at hand regarding the 1 Corinthians 9:20 & 21 are:

  1. The context of 1 Corinthians chapters 9 and 10
  2. The Koine Greek grammar/parsing of “(not being myself under the law)” from verse 20
  3. The true Koine Greek translation of verse 21
  4. The idiomatic phrasing and context of verse 21

Number One – The Context

Please go to 1 Corinthians for yourself and read chapters 9 and 10, and try not to overlay any preconceived denominational dogma that has been drilled into you from the mainstream System; just read the text then come back to this study…

So, as you now know, the context of chapters nine and ten as a whole is Paul defending his ministry to those in Corinth; that he has the right to receive compensation for the work he did for them, even though he has not demanded it. He’s claiming that he is compelled to preach the good news under all conditions and in all circumstances, whether he gets supported or not. He is also appealing to the Corinthians to flee idols and to imitate him, that is, to ‘endure the race’, lest they or he should be disqualified. That is the context, it is not the Law and whether or not it has any authority.

But, as is common with Paul, there are idiomatic phrases and metaphors that he proclaims! Within the context of defending himself and appealing for endurance, he makes a number of comments that, unless you know the Scriptural references, idioms of that culture and the Koine Greek terminology that he used, it all gets lost in translation.

*Of note; the back half of chapter 10 has the infamous verse that has been horrifically mis-translated but is not part of this study; it has its own study at this link, ‘All things are lawful’.

Number Two – The correct understanding of ‘though myself not being under the law

As I mentioned, half of the original Koine Greek manuscripts do not even have this part of the verse in it, but even if Paul did say this, it’s a moot point. The true Greek understanding of ‘under the Law’ has been completely lost in translation as the study ‘Subject to the Power of the Law’ proved.

In short, the actual English should read ‘though myself not being subject to the power of the law’.

The Greek of Under law” is “ὑπὸ νόμον/ hypo nomon”. ‘Nomon’, or ‘Law’, is in the Accusative Case. Therefore, according to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, Strong’s G5259 hypo/ under means: subject to the power of.

 The Law of God has the power to accuse us and bring charges against us when we violate it (i.e., sin). When our sin has dominion over us, we become subject to that power and the Law rightly judges us guilty, Roman 6:14.

It has nothing to do with whether or not it the Law is current or valid or has authoritative status. It has to do with how the Law is affecting you in your sin. If you are obeying the Law you are not subject to its power to pronounce you guilty, you are not ‘under the law’ when you are obeying it; period. More to the point though, in Messiah we have remission from the willful sins we have committed in our rebellion, the sins that are subject to the power of the Law.

If we have repented of our willful sin or rebellion, and if we have confessed Jesus as our master and believe God raised him from the dead, we are now subject to the power of the grace/favor of God, no longer subject to the power of the Law to condemn us. But what the mainstream Christian System fails to comprehend is that God did NOT abolish his Law when Messiah defeated death! He made a way for us to be pardoned, a way for our prior sins to be blotted out of existence, Praise Yah!!!

It does NOT mean there is no more Law and no more sin!

If we go back to our rebellious or willful sin, we forfeit the pardon that he gave us through the Messiah, and then there’s no more remission for our sin, Hebrews 10:26.

Hebrews 10:26-28 For if we go on sinning deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a fearful expectation of judgment, and a fury of fire that will consume the adversaries. 28 Anyone who sets aside the law of Moses dies without mercy on the evidence of two or three witnesses.

The writer of ‘Hebrews’ obviously thought we can continue in sin if we choose to, AND verse 28 states in the Present Tense in the original Koine Greek that anyone who sets aside/annuls the Law of Moses, that person dies… some English versions deceptively put that verse in past-tense, which it is NOT! If your Bible version has this in the past-tense you are being lied to!!

Paul told us in Romans 3 that the blood of Jesus is the atonement for our “prior” sins through faith; BUT that faith does not abolish the Law ~

Romans 3:31 Do we then abolish the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.

[please read the study, ‘Paul Commands Us to Uphold the Law’ for a comprehensive study of this verse and the context of the chapter]

It’s Paul’s considered opinion that the Law is NOT abolished, regardless of what any Christian denomination may claim!

So, with the “context” of 1 Corinthians chapters 9 & 10 and correct understanding of “(not being myself under the law)” from verse 20 in mind let’s proceed with the next ‘Issue’ of the mainstream doctrinal dogma.

Number Three – The true Koine Greek translation of verse 21

In the majority of English Bibles, we are forced to read the following rendition:

1 Corinthians 9:21 To those outside the law I became as one outside the law (not being outside the law of God but under the law of Christ) that I might win those outside the law. | ESV

However, verse 21 in the Greek literally reads in English as follows ~

“To those lawless like lawless – not existing lawless to God but lawful to Messiah – that I might gain those that are lawless”

The English words ‘under the law of’ from verse 21 are NOT in ANY Greek manuscript; “under the law of” in the Greek would be ‘ὑπὸ νόμον’ / ‘hypo nomon’, as it is in Romans 3:31. See the study Subject to the Power of the Lawat my website to learn the true meaning of the Greek ‘hypo nomon’.

In 1 Corinthians 9:21 the Koine Greek says ἔννομος / ennomos, which is ‘G1772, and means ‘legal’ or ‘lawful’. Ennomos is an adjective that is derived from ‘en’ and ‘nomos’.

En’ is the Greek (G1722) for ‘in’, ‘on’ or ‘by’. ‘Nomos’ is the Greek (G3551) for ‘law’.

The adjective ‘ennomos’ is describing Paul in relation to Christ, just as ‘anomos’ is the adjective that describes Paul’s relation to God ‘four words earlier in the same sentence’, where Paul said he is “not existing lawless to God”. “Lawless” is anomos in the Greek (G459), or “withoutlaw“. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon states this to mean: ‘destitute of the Mosiac Law’.

This one sentence is a flat-out admission from Paul that he does follow the Law of God given through Moses. He said in the first part of the sentence that ‘when he is with those people that are without law, he is similar to those without law’. But he immediately qualifies this by stating he himself is ‘NOT without law to God’ in case someone might be concerned that when he was with those lawless people, he too was being lawless. But Paul claimed he is NOT lawless to God, and by stating he is NOT lawless to God, Paul is admitting he IS lawful to God’, i.e., obedient to the Law of God!

Now, right on the heels of the statement that ‘he is lawful to God’, he adds the confirmation that he is also lawful to the Messiah.

What Paul is NOT stating is that he’s somehow subject to some new list of commands called the ‘law of Christ’ that differs from the ‘Law of God’, which is what mainstream Christianity incorrectly teaches that he’s claiming in this verse. They ignored the original Greek words and change the translation to make it say what they want it to say in English.

Paul stated in the same breath, ‘he is not lawless to God, he is lawful to Messiah’… two synonymous and analogous admissions.

The apostle Paul just claimed that being lawful to Jesus is the same thing as being lawful to God! … well, is Jesus the ‘Word-of-God-in-the-flesh’ or not?

Remember the context; Paul defending his actions of serving/preaching to the public and deserving compensation even though he did not demand it. In other words, Paul is saying that he has attempted to serve everyone by trying to “appear” similar in nature to all, to put them at ease, so as to be able to preach to them the good news of Messiah. When he’s with Jews he speaks and acts like Jews, when he’s with pagans/gentiles he speaks, and acts like them. He said he did this to try to gain their trust and confidence ‘in order to win’ them over to his message.

HOWEVER, Paul stated as a caveat that he himself is NOT lawless to God in verse 21 when he was with lawless people. He confesses publicly that he is NOT living outside of God’s Law! That portion of the verse is in EVERY Greek manuscript!!!

Number Four – The idiomatic phrasing and context of verse 21

In the same breath, Paul immediately follows the claim of not living lawless to God with the statement that he is lawful to Messiah. This admission by Paul is a common idiom, it is a metaphoric expression of comparison.

The Bible is full of verses that have this comparison model, and Paul the biblical scholar that he was, is using this same model to express that being lawful to God is the same thing as being lawful to Messiah! Here are just a few examples of comparative verses ~

This is my God, and I will praise him, my father’s God, and I will exalt him. | Exodus 15:2

    • my God’ is equal to ‘my father’s God’ in this sentence.
    • I will praise him‘ is equal to ‘I will exalt him’ in this sentence.

May desert tribes bow down before him and his enemies lick the dust. | Psalm 72:9

    • desert tribes bow down before him’ is equal to ‘enemies lick the dust’ in this sentence.

What has been will be again, what has been done will be done again; there is nothing new under the sun. | Ecclesiastes 1:9

    • What has been will be again’ is equal to ‘there is nothing new under the sun’ in this sentence.

And nations shall come to your light, and kings to the brightness of your rising. | Isaiah 60:3

    • nations shall come to your light’ is equal to ‘kings to the brightness of your rising’ in this sentence.

People who have not soiled their garments, and they will walk with me in white, for they are worthy. The one who conquers will be clothed thus in white garments, and I will never blot his name out of the book of life | Revelation 3:4-5

    • People who have not soiled their garments’ is equal to ‘The one who conquers’ in this sentence.
    • walk with me in white’ is equal to ‘clothed thus in white garments’ in this sentence.

There are scores and scores of verses in the Bible that use comparative metaphor and 1 Corinthians 9:21 is one of those verses. Paul is telling us that even though he went among the lawless, he himself is not lawless. He said that he’s NOT lawless to God but is lawful to Christ. This is not saying they are different; he’s ACTUALLY saying they’re exactly the same. Paul is deepening the understanding by stating the same thing in a different way. He’s emphasizing that he keeps the Law of God by saying the same thing twice in the same breath, using different wording!

Just like Messiah stated in Matthew 13:13 when he quoted the prophet Isaiah,

Seeing they do not see, and hearing they do not hear, nor do they understand”. | Matthew 13:13

The same thing is stated using different phrases. The not seeing and not hearing is the same thing as not understanding… comparative phrases to emphasize the point.

Paul is NOT stating that being lawful to Messiah is different than being lawful to God; he’s using idiomatic comparison, stating that they are the SAME thing!

Now for the CRITICAL component!!!

‘Why’ did Paul state, ‘being lawful to God is the same as being lawful to Messiah’?

Why even say it at all?

What the Christian System tragically misunderstands, is “how” God the Father and God the Son are in complete harmony with one another. The mainstream Christian System thinks that the God of the Old Testament and Jesus are different Gods with different agendas and different Laws and a different chosen people… pure heretical nonsense!

The Son did NOT come to start a new religion or to annul the Father’s Laws and issue a new list of laws that are different! That thought or concept is completely false!!

Paul knew that Jesus came to earth as the Royal Ambassador of the Father, the Royal Messenger of God, the Voice of God the Father… the Word-of-God.

Jesus, the Word of God, now in human form, is the one-and-only Voice of the Father. He was sent ‘by the Father’ to announce and proclaim “the will of the Father”. Jesus did not do a single thing of his own accord to promote his own agenda; everything he did was in complete submission and obedience to the Father.

What does the text say?

John 5:19 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing

John 5:30 I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.

John 7:16 So Jesus answered them, “My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me.

John 8:28 So Jesus said to them, “When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am he, and that I do nothing on my own authority, but speak just as the Father taught me.

John 14:10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works.

Everything that Jesus said, did and taught was not on his own authority for some new agenda; when Jesus spoke, it was as if the Father ‘Himself’ was speaking; the Word of God… ~

John14:24 Whoever does not love me does not keep my words. And the word that you hear is not mine but the Fathers who sent me.

Everything that Jesus said was the Father’s words; when Jesus spoke, it was the Father speaking through him! Jesus said that he had no authority to do anything for himself, and he even stated that the Father is greater than he is ~

John 14:28 for the Father is greater than I

Jesus did not come to preach his own new personal doctrines; he came as God-in-the-flesh to the Israelites to fully teach and preach the doctrines of the God of Israel!

The Creator of All Things manifested “His Word” into human flesh in order to live among us…

Do you know why God Himself had to come down from heaven and put on human flesh? Because there were promises and prophecies that God Almighty needed to fulfil that only He could do.

The ‘Word’ of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, through His divine power, manifested in the womb of Mary and became a living human-being; God in the flesh –> Immanuel, God with us | Isaiah 7:14.

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Immanuel in Hebrew is עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל/emannu el, which means “with us is God”!

Isaiah goes on to say ~

Isaiah 9:6 For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, God, Mighty, Eternal, Prince of Peace.

This verse prophesied the coming of the Messiah, and that he is to be called “God” and “Eternal”. Jesus the Messiah is the Eternal God, that is what the verse says! Before he put on human form, before he was a baby boy in a manger, before he was given the name ‘Jesus’, he was ‘Eternal’, ‘Mighty God’!

That is what the Word of God proclaims!

How did He do that? The same way He created all things… by His unlimited Divine Power. How does that work? I don’t know, it’s well above my pay-grade to know ‘how‘. But you either believe the Word of God or you don’t… I believe.

But guess what? There are numerous other verses in the Word of God to confirm and expound on this… so get ready, we’re going to read a lot of verses now…

The ‘Eternal-Word-of-God-Almighty’ was manifested into human flesh ~

    • John 1:1,14 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God… And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us
    • Romans 9:4-5 They are Israelites, and to them belong the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the worship, and the promises. To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh is the Christ who is God over all blessed forever. Amen.
    • Colossians 1:15-17 Who (Jesus) is the image of the invisible Godall things were created through him and for him. And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together
    • Revelation 19:13 He (Jesus) is clothed in a robe dipped in blood, and the name by which he is called is The Word of God.

In the beginning, before he was flesh, before he took on the name/persona of ‘Jesus’ that was born to the human parents of Mary and Joseph, he was the WORD of GOD. I know it’s hard for us mere humans to wrap our head around that fact, but you either believe the verses or you don’t…

Before he came in human form, that Eternal-Word-of-God-Almighty manifested to man-kind numerous times in a number of different ways. One of those ways was as the ‘burning bush that was not consumed’, and that ‘Word’ came forth from that burning bush to Moses’ and said, “I am that I am” | Exodus 3:14

Exodus 3:14God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” And he said, “Say this to the people of Israel: ‘I AM has sent me to you.’”

John 8:58Jesus said’ to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”

Jesus is claiming to be the “I AM” of the Old Testament that was pre-existent.

Jesus and the Father are truly in one another ~

            John 10:30 I and My Father are one.

The Son, before he put on human-flesh, was the Word of God; He “IS” the Word of God, He “IS” the Word from the Scriptures, He “IS” the Word of the Old Testament!!! Jesus told us that he “IS” the “I AM” that was before Abraham…

John 8:58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”

Either Jesus “IS” the “I AM” of the Old Testament that spoke to Abraham, Moses, and the Prophets like he said he was, or he’s a liarAnd we all know that he’s not a liar!

What kind of power is in the Messiah that claims to be the “I AM”?

John 18:4-6 Jesus said, “Whom do you seek?” They answered him, “Jesus of Nazareth.” Jesus said to them, “I am.” Judas, who betrayed him, was standing with them. When Jesus said to them, I am,” they drew back and fell to the ground

When they came to arrest him in the garden, they asked for Jesus of Nazareth, and Jesus answered to them, “I AM”, and they all fell down to the ground when he spoke the words, “I AM”; THAT is POWER! If your Bible says, ‘I am heyou are being lied to, because the modern translators added the word ‘he’, some put parentheses around ‘he’ but most just add it into the verse. The koine Greek manuscripts state “Jesus said, I AM”. And when he said this, they all drew back and fell to the ground! ONLY the Divine Power of God Almighty could do that!!!


The ‘stumbling stone, the rock of offense’ ~

Isaiah 8:13-15 But the LORD/YHWH of hosts, him you shall honor as holy. Let him be your fear and let him be your dread. And He will become a sanctuary and a stone of offense and a rock of stumbling to both houses of Israel, a trap and a snare to the inhabitants of Jerusalem. And many shall stumble on it.

Psalm 118:20-22 This is the gate of the LORD/YHWH; the righteous shall enter through it. I thank YOU that YOU have answered me AND have become my salvation. The stone that the builders rejected has become the cornerstone.

Isaiah and David state that “The LORD/YHWH of hosts himself” is the sanctuary, “the LORD/YHWH” is the stone of offense, “the LORD/YHWH” is the rock of stumbling, “the LORD/YHWH is the chief cornerstone… “the LORD/YHWH” is all of these!

YHWH himself, יהוה Himself is called the cornerstone, the stone of offense and stumbling stone!

 So, what does the New Testament claim???

1 Peter 2:4,6-8 4As you come to him (Jesus), a living stone rejected by men but in the sight of God chosen and precious… 6For it stands in Scripture: Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone, a cornerstone chosen and precious, and whoever believes in him will not be put to shame.”7So the honor is for you who believe, but for those who do not believe, “The stone that the builders rejected has become the cornerstone,” 8and “A stone of stumbling, and a rock of offense.

Peter blatantly describes ‘Jesus’ as the rejected stone, and the cornerstone ~

Act 4:11 This Jesus is the stone that was rejected by you, the builders, which has become the cornerstone.

Jesus proclaimed this of himself in Matthew 21:42 in the parable of the tenant where the son is sent and the tenants kill him ~

Matthew 21:38-42 38But when the tenants saw the son, they said to themselves, this is the heir. Come, let us kill him and have his inheritance.’ 39And they took him and threw him out of the vineyard and killed him. 40When therefore the owner of the vineyard comes, what will he do to those tenants?” ­41They said to him, “He will put those wretches to a miserable death and let out the vineyard to other tenants who will give him the fruits in their seasons.” 42Jesus said to them, “Have you never read in the Scriptures: ‘The stone that the builders rejected has become the cornerstone

                        {parallel verses in Mark 12:1-11 & Luke 20:9-17}

The Son-of-God, before he put on flesh, was that Word-of-YHWH from Isaiah and Psalms above!

More Scriptural proof ~

Jesus, the Word-of-God-Almighty-in-human-flesh, is the exact representation of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob that created all things…

Colossians 1:15-19 15He (Jesus) is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. 16For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him. 17And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. 18And he is the head of the body, the church. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in everything he might be preeminent. 19For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell.

The Greek word for ‘image in verse 15 is G1504, eikon/ εἰκών. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon states this to mean: the image of one; one in whom the likeness of anyone is seen.

The Greek word for ‘fullness’ in verse 19 is G4138, pleroma / πλήρωμα. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon states this to mean: that which fills or with which a thing is filled; completeness, fullness.

Jesus “is” the exact likeness and completeness of God Almighty.

Next ~

Philippians 2:5-6 Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped.

The Greek word for ‘form’ is G3444, morphe / μορφή. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon states this to mean: the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision; the external appearance.

The Greek word for equality is G2470, isos/ ἴσος. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon states this to mean: equality; having the same level or value; equivalent, equal in substance or quality.

When Jesus was in that pre-human manifestation as the Word of God, he was equal to and in the form of God.

Next ~

Hebrews 1:3 He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power.

The Greek word for imprint is G5287, hupostasis / ὑπόστασις. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon states this to mean: foundation, substance, substantial quality and nature.

Jesus, “is” the exact quality, substance, nature, appearance, likeness and completion of YHWH Almighty, because Jesus is the Voice/Word that was before Abraham, he created all things and he upholds the universe by ‘the word’ of his power! He is not the Father, but the Word of the Father that spoke everything into existence. He is the Voice that promised an everlasting covenant to Abraham, and He is the Voice of Mount Sinai that spoke the Law to Moses.

How does that work? I don’t know, I’m a mere human, I can’t possibly understand the magnitude of the All-Powerful God of Creation, but I believe it because His Word says so!

Think logically, not emotionally…

I’m driving this home hard with a lot of verses because the Christian System does not teach that Jesus is the God-of-the-Old-Testament-come-in-human-flesh like the Scriptures actually state. They teach that he is a different God that’s been sitting on the side-lines somewhere up in heaven, and then 2,000 years ago he came to earth to change and do-away-with the doctrines and laws of a different Old Testament God…

The mainstream dogma that Jesus is a different God that came to change and abolish what the God from the Old Testament declared is a heretical lie from the pit-of-hell.

Jesus ‘is’ the WORD of the Old Testament, he ‘is’ the VOICE of God that spoke to Adam, Abraham, Moses!

Jesus himself stated that no one has ever heard the Fathers voice, and no one has ever seen the Father except the Son ~

John 5:37 And the Father who sent me has himself borne witness about me. His voice you have never heard, his form you have never seen

John 6:46 not that anyone has seen the Father except he who is from God; he (Jesus) has seen the Father

Not Adam, not Abraham, not Moses, nor any other human has ever seen or heard God the Father. Therefore, the Voice that they heard and the manifestations that they saw was NOT the Father but was the Son BEFORE he put on human flesh, when he was ‘The WORDofGod’.

You either believe the verses or you don’t…

I believe.

Jesus, Immanuel, God, walked among us to teach us and show us ‘how-to-live-in’ righteousness and justice. Jesus came to teach us “HIS” commandments and “HIS” laws that “HE” gave on Mount Sinai to Moses. As God, he did not come to change anything; Jesus did NOT come to change the Laws that HE gave to Moses! God’s character, purpose and intrinsic nature does not change… God-the-Word does not change, He is the same yesterday, today and forever…

Malachi 3:6 “For I יהוה do not change”.

Hebrews 13:8 Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever.

Psalms 119:89 Forever, O יהוה, your word is firmly fixed in the heavens.

Psalms 119:152 Long have I known from your testimonies that you have founded them forever.

Matthew 24:35 Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will not pass away.

1 Peter 1:25 but the word of the Lord remains forever.

The Word of God is forever, and Jesus is that Word. He was the same yesterday, and He is the same today! He just manifested/appeared to us as a human man instead of the thundering Voice coming from Mount Sinai.

So, getting back to 1 Corinthians 9:21 ~

Being lawful to Christ is the exact same thing as being lawful to the Law of God given through Moses because Jesus is the living breathing, walking-talking embodiment of the Law; He is the Word/Voice/Truth/Law made flesh, as this five-verse-loop explains ~

John 14:6 Jesus said to him, “I am the way, and the Truth, and the life.

Psalm 11 9:142 Your righteousness is righteous forever and your Law is Truth.

Psalm 119:151 But you are near, O LORD, and all your Commandments are Truth.

Psalm 119:160 The sum of your Word is Truth, and every one of your righteous rules endures forever.

John 1:14 14And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us,

Jesus is the Word of YHWH manifested into human form and the Word of YHWH, which is the Word of Truth, are His Commandments, His Instructions, His Law.

♦◊♦ Jesus claimed he is the great ‘I AM’ that was before Abraham existed, and he claimed to be the “Truth”; the Scriptures declare the Law, the Instructions, the Word, the Commandments are “Truth” and “Jesus” is the “Word” and the “Truth”. They are all the same thing… Jesus is the walking-talking Law of God, and he did NOT come to do away with or abolish himself! ◊♦◊♦

Wrapping up…

1 Corinthians 9:21 to those who are without law, as without law, not being without law to God, but lawful to Christ, that I might win those who are without law

Paul is adamantly stating that he lives, observes and upholds the Law of God, and we know he did that because there is Biblical documentation, ‘Acts 21’ ~

Acts 21:24 Take them and be purified with them, and pay their expenses so that they may shave their heads, and that all may know that those things of which they were informed concerning you (Paul) are nothing, but that you yourself also walk orderly and keep the law. | NKJV

Acts 21:24 take these men and purify yourself along with them and pay their expenses, so that they may shave their heads. Thus all will know that there is nothing in what they have been told about you (Paul), but that you yourself also live in observance of the law. | ESV

[please read the study, ‘You Yourself Also Live in Observance of the Law’ for a comprehensive study of this verse]

Paul not only proved that he upheld and observed the Law of Moses, but he also quotes it as a current and present tense authoritative law here in 1 Corinthians that we are right in the middle of studying!

1 Corinthians 9:8-9 Do I say these things on human authority? Does not the Law say the same? For it is written in the Law of Moses, “You shall not muzzle an ox when it treads out the grain.” Is it for oxen that God is concerned? Does he not certainly speak for our sake? It was written for our sake

♦◊♦ On whose authority is Paul saying this is? Paul admitted that it’s not on human authority, but on ‘the authority of the Law of Moses; according to the apostle Paul, ‘the Law of Moses still has authority◊♦◊♦

Final Thought: The mainstream Christian System is not telling you the truth; the verse in 1 Corinthians 9:21 does not say ‘under the Law of Christ’ in the original Greek, it says, “lawful to Christ”! You are being lied to by people that deny the authoritative Law of God. The apostle Paul just told us in 1 Corinthians 9:8-9 the Law of Moses is still in authority, which he proved that he kept, post-Resurrection in Acts 21!!!

The Mainstream Christian translators and teachers have invented a heretical ‘Law of Christ’ which they claim is different from the Law of Moses so they can justify and rationallie to themselves an excuse to not obey the authoritative Law of God given through Moses.

What they don’t comprehend (or worse, ignore) is that Jesus is the God that ‘spoke’ His Law to Moses; being lawful to Christ IS being lawful to the Law of Moses. They are the same thing!!!

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  • For further study of Paul’s teachings, as well as the original Greek, see the ‘Links’ at the top of this page or blog posts at the bottom. Be like the Bereans, and test Paul’s doctrines to the “Scriptures”; look up for yourself more than 60 of the “forever verses” listed below. Thank you for your time!